Runner is stealing third as the batter is hit by pitch.  Runner would have easily achieved third base.  Where do you place the runners and what rule is enforced?  (No other runner on the bases, except for runner stealing from second to third)

Under NFHS, when a batter is hit by a pitch, the ball is immediately dead (5-1-1) and the batter is awarded first base (8-1-1-d).   When a ball becomes dead, each runner must return to the base legally occupied at the time the ball became dead (8-3-9).  When a ball becomes dead, a runner may advance only when awarded a base(s) for an act which occurred before the ball became dead (5-2-2-c).

In this situation, the batter would be awarded first base and the runner returned to second base.

The bases are loaded with one out and the infield is playing back. A batted ball hits a runner going from first base to second base. The umpire rules the runner out, however allows the runner on second base and third base to score. We protest and the umpire says it is a "delayed dead ball" (never have heard that expression) and allows both runners to score. My contention is that the runner hit by the ball is out and the batter now occupies 1st base. The original runner on 2nd and 3rd base return to their base. No runners score in this situation! Please advise. Thanks.

Under all rules, if a batter is touched by a fair batted ball before it has passed any infielder (not counting the pitcher), the ball is dead immediately and the runner is out.  The batter is awarded first base and all other runners return to the base occupied at the time of the pitch, unless forced by the batter-runner being awarded first base.

(FOLLOWUP QUESTION TO ABOVE)  Thus in our situation, the batter will occupy 1st base and the man on 2nd base returns as well as the man on 3rd base. The player running from first to second is out as the ball hit him. Never in this scenario does a runner score- correct? When you say unless a runner is forced you simply mean if the man on second going to third is hit by the ball then he is out and the man on 3rd returns to the base and the runner on first goes to second and the batter goes to first. Correct?? These umpires not only allowed the runner on 3rd to score, they also allowed the runner on 2nd to score??? Also they used the term delayed dead ball. No such term- correct??

In your situation, no runners would score.  The runner from 1st base is out on the interference, and the batter gets first base.  If the ball had hit a different runner, say the runner from second, then that runner would be out and all runners return to their bases.  However, the batter would be awarded first base, and the runner who is on first would be "forced" to move to second base.  In any circumstance, under this scenario, you would end up with an out, no runs scoring, and bases loaded at the end of all base awards.

The term "delayed dead ball" is a valid term under all rules.  It refers to an action that causes a possible base award or other penalty at the end of playing action and the ball does not become dead until that time, regardless of when the infraction occurred.  Such cases include catcher interference, batter interference, balk (under NCAA and OBR only), and obstruction.  In those cases, the umpire must make note of the infraction and when all playing action has concluded, determine if the penalty is to be enforced.

In OBR there are two types of obstruction; one on a runner on which a play is being made, one on a runner that a play is not being made. He said you kill the first immediately. The second is delayed dead ball. How does NFHS treat these? I only see "obstruction" in the rules with no differentiation.

In NFHS there is only one type of obstruction on a runner, and it is always a delayed dead ball.  It does not make any difference if a play was being made or not. 

In OBR you cannot make two trips to the mound on the same hitter. If you do the manager is ejected, the pitcher must complete the "at bat" of the current hitter, and then the pitcher is removed. In NFHS it just says (penalty) is to remove the pitcher after the third charged conference if a "fourth" is attempted. How do we apply the "two-trips" to the same hitter if it's the potential fourth trip? 

In NFHS, a coach is allowed three "charged" conferences during the regular inning (first 7 innings) to the mound without penalty.  He can take them at any time during the regular innings of the game, including to the same pitcher with the same batter.  There is no restriction on him going to the mound with the same batter.  However, if the coach has already used his three conferences, he must remove the pitcher on any subsequent visits.  It doesn't matter if that is the first visit with that pitcher, or the second.  If he is out of "free" conferences, the pitcher must be replaced.  The only exception is if the visit to the mound would violate the pitching restrictions. 

For example, the coach has already used all of his "free" conferences.  He just replaced Pitcher A with Pitcher B.  Pitcher B is pitching to his first batter and is struggling and the coach wants to go out to the mound.  In this case, the coach would not be allowed to go to the mound since his going would require him to replace Pitcher B, and that would be a violation of the pitching rules which require Pitcher B to pitch to the first batter until he is put out, reaches first base, or the third out of the inning is made.

Runners on first and second, both involved in multiple steal. As pitch is being delivered batter swings and misses but strikes the catchers mitt in the process. Are both runners on base given a stolen base or is play dead and all runners advance one base due to catcher interference

The batter striking the catcher's mitt during attempt to hit the ball is catcher's "interference".  It is, under all rules (OBR/NCAA/NFHS), a delayed dead ball.  The umpires let play continue.  At the end of all playing action, the umpire will call TIME and allow the defensive coach the option of taking the result of the play or enforcing the penalty for catcher interference.

If the coach opts to take the result of the play, the batter remains at bat and the runners are wherever they ended up at the end of playing action.  Any outs made on the play stand and any runs made count. For example, let's say the catcher tries throws to third and the ball goes over the fielder's head deep into the outfield.  The runner from second scores and the runner from first ends up on third base.  The coach must decide if the run and a runner on third are more important to him than having the bases loaded, but without the run scoring.

If the coach opts to enforce the catcher interference, then all outs and runs scored are nullified.  All runners return to the bases occupied at the time of the pitch.  The batter is awarded first base and any runners forced to advance due to the batter being awarded first base, are also awarded the base to which they must advance.  In this case, you now have the bases loaded.

NFHS 
2 outs.  Runners at 1st & 2nd. Batter swings at pitch that hits him in helmet & goes into dead ball territory.  Dead ball strike...yes.  Do runners advance?  Does batter go to 1st? (uncaught 3rd strike?)

Under NFHS, batters hit by a pitch are governed by rules 5-1-1-1(a), 5-2-2 8-1-1(d), 8-1-1-(d)(1).  If a batter swings at a pitch and is also struck by the pitch, the ball is dead immediately and the pitch is called a strike. (dead ball strike).

DO RUNNERS ADVANCE?
NO.  Runners may not advance on a dead ball unless they are awarded bases or are forced to advance because of the batter being awarded first.  Since the batter was struck by a pitch, only the batter can be awarded a base. (8-1-1 and 8-1-2).  It doesn't make any difference if he swung at the pitch for purposes of base awards.  If he had not swung at the pitch, would you award a base to runners who were not forced? No.  The same applies if he did swing at the pitch. 

DOES BATTER GO TO 1st?
NO.  The batter swung at the pitch and it is a strike.  The base award to the batter is ignored if the pitch is called a strike (8-1-1-d-1), but the ball is dead.

DROPPED THIRD STRIKE?
NO.  The ball is immediately dead as soon as it touches the batter.  Once the ball is dead, it becomes irrelevant if the catcher is able to catch the ball.  No runners may advance and the pitch is called a strike.  If it is a third strike, the batter is out since no runners, including the batter-runner may advance when the ball is dead and the defense cannot make any play that would cause a runner to be put out. (5-2-2)

I had a kid in the Windup (both feet on the rubber, ball and hand in the glove in front of him, step directly toward a base and pick a runner off.  I called a balk.  No one argued.

I was thinking that the rule said a pitcher could do three things, but was sure that it said it about being in the stretch.  So I go back and reread (8.01(a)), and low and behold, it says that about the Windup ???????????

He can step and deliver a pitch, he can step and throw to a base, and he can disengage.   Come on now!    Surely a pitcher cannot step and throw to a base directly from the windup without disengaging or everyone one would be doing it.

It's weird enough that a left hander in the stretch can slide step toward first and throw.................

Please tell me that I am just reading the rules wrong .......... tell me it ain’t so!  And if he can't do that, why does it read that way?

It is legal under all rules EXCEPT NFHS to make a pickoff from the windup position.  Very few pitchers do it since it is difficult to do without getting balked, but is legal under OBR and NCAA rules.

You have to pay close attention to the foot and make sure it goes directly toward the base and not in his "normal" step that starts his pitching motion.  This is critical since it is now permissible to take a step sideways in order to start the pitching motion.  MLB and MILB recommend that you look at the toes of the non-pivot foot.  If it is facing more toward the plate than the base, it is a balk.  If it is pointed more toward the base, then it is a pickoff move.

Situation: Routine infield grounder to SS, who throws to 1B, the ball hits the dirt and bounces by the first baseman. The ball hits the 1B coach and deflects off down the RF line, allowing the runner to advance to 2B, whereas, had the ball gone straight past the 1B-man w/o hitting the coach, it's questionable whether the runner could have advanced because the catcher had run down the line to back up the throw. The defensive manager argues interference on the coach. In the umpire’s eyes, the 1B coach did not intentionally deflect the ball. How should the umpire make the call, advance runner or no?

Also, in a similar situation, the ball hits the 1B coach and bounces back toward the 1B-man who is able to retrieve it and step on 1B for the out. Now the 1B coach "interference" caused his own team a negative consequence, but would the same rule apply here as in the above situation?

Your question concerns whether or not a base coach who is struck by a thrown ball has interfered with the play or not.  Part of this will depend on which set of rules are being used for the game as there is a slight difference between MLB/OBR and High School/NCAA rules.

The rules that govern this situation are as follows:

MLB/OBR - Rule 5.08
      "If a thrown ball accidentally touches a base coach, or a pitched or thrown ball touches an umpire, the ball is alive and in play.  However, if the coach interferes with a thrown ball, the runner is out."

      This will be umpire judgment as to whether or not the coach's actions were accidental or intentional. If ruled intentional, the ball is dead immediately and runner is out.  If accidental, the ball is alive, runners advance at their own risk, and all plays stand on their own merits.

High School - Rule 3-2-3
      "If a thrown ball accidentally touches a base coach in foul territory, or a pitched or thrown ball touches an umpire,  the ball is alive and in play.  However, if the coach is judged by the umpire to have interfered intentionally with     the thrown ball, or interferes in fair territory, the interference penalty is invoked"

      Basically this mean that if the coach is in foul territory and does not intentionally interfere with the thrown ball, the ball is alive and runners advance at their own risk.  If the coach intentionally interferes with a thrown ball while in foul territory, the ball is immediately dead and the runner is out.  If the coach is struck by a thrown ball and is in fair territory, it is automatically interference, the ball is dead, and the runner is out.

NCAA - Rule 8-3j
      "If a thrown ball strikes a base coach on foul ground, the ball is in play. If the coach interfered intentionally with such a thrown ball, the runner is out and any other runners must return to the last base touched"

      This is the same as High School.

The bottom line is that it is umpire judgment, which is not arguable by a coach under any rules, as to whether the coach's actions were intentional or accidental.  In both scenarios you provided, if the touch was accidental, the ball is alive and all runners may advance at their own risk and are subject to being put out if they are not legally touching a base. 

In your first scenario, the batter-runner remains on second base and he acquired it legally.

In your second scenario, the runner would be out as the first baseman touched the base while holding the ball securely in his glove before the batter-runner touched the base. 

If the touch by the coach was deemed to be intentional, then the ball would have been immediately dead, and the batter-runner would be out.  All other runners would return to the bases legally occupied at the time of the interference.

OBR
The pitcher’s glove is black with white lacing/piping, which makes it appear to be an illegal glove.  Can the pitcher use this glove under OBR rules?

I checked the latest version of the OBR concerning the pitcher’s glove.  You related that the glove was black with grey or white thread/piping along the fingers.  Rule 1.15 addresses this issue and there was a change in 2007-08 which relaxed the rule somewhat under OBR.  I have included the rule below for your reference.  The important change is in section (a) which excludes the piping on a glove from the color restrictions.  From what you described, the glove is legal under the current OBR rules.  NOTE:  If you have a 2007 rulebook, it does not have this change in it since the MLB made the change after the book had already gone to print.   It should be in the 2008 version or you can view the current rulebook on the MLB website at http://mlb.mlb.com/mlb/official_info/official_rules/foreword.jsp.  Even if the glove was deemed to violate the rule, the only penalty is to remove the glove from the game. 

OBR – Rule 1.15
(a) The pitcher’s glove may not, exclusive of piping, be white, gray, nor, in the judgment of an umpire, distracting in any manner.
(b) No pitcher shall attach to his glove any foreign material of a color different from the glove.
(c) The umpire-in-chief shall cause a glove that violates Rules 1.15(a) or 1.15(b) to be removed from the game, either on his own initiative, at the recommendation of another umpire or upon complaint of the opposing manager that the umpire-in-chief agrees has merit.

Texas High School baseball.

Batter strikes out, catcher drops ball, while batter/runner advances to first base he runs straight down the baseline, stepping either side of the foul line.  Catcher throws the ball to first base, hitting batter/runner.  Umpire calls interference on batter/runner because he stepped into fair ball territory and did not stay in the 3' runners (outside) box leading to 1st base.

Is this a correct call?

Texas high school baseball is governed by National Federation of High Schools (NFHS) rules.   NFHS Rule 8-4-1(g) states that the batter-runner is out if he runs outside the three-foot running lane, which is the last half of the distance between home plate and first base) while the ball is being fielded or thrown to the first baseman and interferes with the fielder or throw.  The runner is considered outside the running lane if either foot is outside of either line.

A batter-runner who advances to first base as a result of a hit or an uncaught third strike must remain in the running lane.  In this case, the runner would be out of the running lane since one foot is outside of the lane. When the runner is hit by the catcher's throw, he is guilty of interference by virtue of being out of the running lane and is out.

If a pitcher hits for himself and has a courtesy runner, and lets say in the fourth inning the pitcher is pinch hit for and the hitter gets a hit. Can you replace the pinch hitter with the pitcher to run at first and then in the same inning put the courtesy runner back in to run for the pitcher?

Yes, that is legal as long as the pitcher is a starting player.  Under NFHS, a starting player may be removed from the game and re-entered one time.  Courtesy runners are not considered “substitutions” under NFHS.  Thus, in this situation, the starting pitcher was removed from the game when a pitch hitter took his place in the batter’s box.  The starting pitcher has been re-entered when he took the pinch runner’s place on the bases.  Now the pitcher is on the bases, and a courtesy runner can be used. 

NOTE:  the courtesy runner could not be used for the pinch runner since he is not the pitcher.  That would have been a substitution.  By re-entering the pitcher to run, the coach now has the option of using a courtesy runner.

In Texas High School baseball, does a runner from 3rd have to slide into home when the catcher is making a play? This came up recently in a game.

Texas High Schools play under the Nation Federation of High Schools (NFHS) rules for baseball.  The short answer is no, there is not a mandatory slide rule at the plate in high school baseball.

 The rules for sliding are covered in rule 8-4-2.  Under this rule a runner is never required to slide, but if he does slide it must be a legal slide.

Pitcher has the ball in his glove when he steps to the pitchers rubber in the stretch.  He then removes the ball and assumes the stretch.  He then sets with the ball in normal fashion (bringing the hands together).

Is this a double set and balk?

Under OBR and NFHS it is technically (i.e.: by the exact letter of the rule) a balk.  Whether or not it is called, is going to be based upon the umpire's judgment as to exactly what happened.

OBR (Major League rules) - 
Rule 8.01(b) states that   "Preparatory to coming to a set position, the pitcher shall have one hand on his side; from this position he shall go to his set position as defined in Rule 8.01(b) without interruption and in one continuous motion. The pitcher, following his stretch, must (a) hold the ball in both hands in front of his body and (b) come to a complete stop."   

The issue here is whether the pitcher started to come set when he reached in the glove to get the ball, which will be based upon umpire judgment and will probably be based on several factors such as the length of time between when he stepped on the rubber and reached for the ball, whether both of his feet were in his "normal" Set position, whether the move was intentional and thus designed to deceive the runner, etc.  (see Approved Ruling below)

APPROVED RULING:  "Umpires should bear in mind that the purpose of the balk rule is to prevent the pitcher form deliberately deceiving the base runner.  If there is doubt in the umpires mind, the "intent" of the pitcher should govern."

APPROVED RULING: "A pitcher is allowed to momentarily adjust the ball, or transfer the ball from hand to glove (or vice versa) as he steps onto the rubber, but is otherwise prohibited from from stepping onto the rubber with his hands joined. "

NFHS (High School) -

Rule 6.1.2 governs the Set position.  NFHS also has a book of case interpretations which provide guidance for enforcing these rules. CASE PLAY 6.1.2 SITUATION E states “With R1 on first, F1 receives the ball and, with his feet in set position and in contact with the pitcher's plate, removes the ball from his glove.  This is a balk.  Restrictions on F1's movement begin when he intentionally contacts the pitcher's plate with his pivot foot."

Although this may be technically a balk, whether it is called or the pitcher is warned (by the umpire or by using another player such as the shortstop) is going to be umpire judgment and should be based upon the "intent" of the pitcher and the level of ball being played.  The intent of the balk rule is to prevent deliberate deception by the pitcher.

Runners on first and second, or first, second and third. 3-2 count two outs. RH Pitcher from the stretch lifts his left leg to start his delivery to the plate. The runners take off too early. Pitcher sees the runner going to third and steps directly toward third and throws to F5. F5 tags out the runner.

Balk or out?

There are several possibilities here, depending on how the pitcher has addressed the rubber.
With the pitcher in the set position, there are a couple of questions/observations that will determine if it is a balk or an out.

• If the pitcher's non-pivot foot (entire foot) passes behind the back edge of the pitcher's plate, then the pitcher may only throw to the plate or make a pickoff or feint to second base.  Anything else, such as throwing to 3rd base, would be a balk.   If his entire non-pivot foot did not pass behind the plane of the back edge of the rubber, this does not apply.
• Assuming that the first part of this does not apply, then a decision must be made as to whether or not he had started his motion to the plate and then changed directions or whether, since he had just started by simply lifting his leg, he brought his leg back and then stepped directly to the base and not toward home.  If the pitcher had clearly started his movement toward the plate and his motion was forward and he had to stop and change directions, then that would probably be a balk.  But if he had only lifted his non-pivot foot and moved it backward in preparation for beginning his pitch and became aware of the runner going and simply changed directions without stopping and stepped directly toward the base and throws the ball, it is probably an out.
• Whether 3rd base is occupied or not is not an issue since a pitcher, from the rubber, can throw to an unoccupied base if it is for the purpose of making a play or forcing a runner back to his base.

Runner on 1st with no outs and 3rd drop strike while runner on first is stealing    Can the batter run to first or is he out by strikeout?

With less than two outs and first base occupied, the runner is out on a third strike, even if it is dropped third strike.  The fact that the runner on first is stealing on the pitch does not mean that first base is unoccupied.  It remains occupied until the runner touches second base.

NFHS 7-4-1(b)
OBR 6.05(c)
NCAA 7-11(h)

R1 on 1st base. F1 is in the set position.  F1 usually lifts his non pivot foot about 12 inches off the ground as he strides toward the plate in his delivery.  Every so often he will change this to a "slide" step towards the plate.  Is this a balk?  If yes, Please explain.

This is not a balk.  There is no requirement that the pitcher use the same delivery motion on every pitch.   Pitchers will often change their stride due to the type of pitch that is being thrown (curve, slider, fast ball, fork ball, etc.), and it legal to do so.

(NFHS rules question)If a batter is in the right hander's batters box and he falls to the dirt while a runner is stealing third, is that batter interference? If the runner was safe is the batter out just like if it was batter's interference during stealing of second base?

With a runner stealing third, if the batter falls to the ground and does not interfere with the catcher while doing so, he is not guilty of interference.  If, however, he makes contact with the catcher or otherwise alters the play, then the umpire could call batter interference if, in the umpire’s judgment, the batter’s actions interfered with the catchers’ attempt to put the runner out.  If batter interference is called, then enforcement depends on what happens with the runner.  If the runner is put out, the out stands and the interference is ignored.  If the runner is not put out, then the batter is out and the runner returns to second base.

No Outs, 0-2 count on batter:

Pitcher throws a high and tight pitch, batter for some reason swings at pitch that is clearly out of strike zone.   The pitch strikes his hands, ricochets to helmet and then hits in eye and rolls foul.   Batter who is now bleeding does nothing, catcher does nothing.  U1 thinking ball had gone off of bat calls "foul ball".  Batters hands were so close to helmet (awkward swing) that when it hit helmet sounded like bat.  The catcher after called foul pick up ball and tags batter.

U1 and U2 get together and U2 informs that ball actually hit hands. 

So the question is, does the inadvertent foul rule apply on a non-batted ball?

Place batter?

Under NFHS Rules 2-16, a foul ball must be a batted ball.  Under NFHS Rule 2-16-1-e, an “inadvertent foul” can only be called on a batted ball, so it does not apply in this case.

The ball hit the batter so it is immediately dead.  The batter swung at the pitch, so it is a strike.  The batter is out on the strike and cannot advance to first on the uncaught third strike since the ball is dead.

Situation:  R1 on first, B4 at bat with less than two outs.  B4 squares around to bunt and his foot is on the plate.  The pitcher throws a low pitch that strikes B4 on the foot that is on the plate.  B4 made noeffort to bunt the ball.

The ball is dead but what is the proper call on the batter?  Is it batter interference for hindering the catchers ability to field the ball and perhaps throw out the runner?  Is it a hit batter and an awarded base?  Is it a hit batter who gets to stay in the batter's box?

Since the batter did not contact the ball while in contact with the plate and the pitch was not a strike, you have a hit batter.  The ball is dead and the batter is awarded 1st.

Be ready for a visit from the other coach.

Here's the situation...we had a runner on first base only. Our pitcher performs a "jump turn" pickoff move to first base and he was called with a “Balk”. The “jump turn” move is when a right-handed pitcher's right foot comes off the rubber, but stays in front of the rubber and is followed quickly by a lift and step with the left foot toward first base. The free foot must land toward the base being thrown at and before the release of the throw. The umpires at the game considered it a “balk”, because his pivoting foot was disengaged toward an unoccupied base (third base). They mentioned that the pitcher is balking because he is not stepping towards first or because he is not stepping toward the outfield to make himself an infielder. By stepping to third first without a runner on third it is considered a balk by USSSA rules.

They also said that the "jump turn" move is a move that was often used in the past, but that it is no longer a legal technique to use. The ‘jump turn” move is not uncommon at all, it is actually taught all around, reason why I was surprised with their decision on the field.

What are your thoughts?

Thank you.

Your question concerns USSSA rules, which follow the OBR as published on mlb.com.  A review of the USSSA exceptions to the OBR finds no prohibition against the “jump turn”, and states that unless specifically excepted, all rules shall be the OBR as published by major league baseball.  The “jump turn” is not prohibited under the OBR.  However, what you are describing is defined by the PBUC as a “jab” step, which is also legal. 

First, and most importantly, what is a “step”?  A step is defined by the OBR and PBUC as a movement by the pitcher’s non-pivot (free) foot.  This is an important consideration as the umpire’s contention that the “jab” step with the pivot foot is actually a “step” toward an unoccupied base is in error.  A step toward a base, for purposes of a balk call, can only be made with the non-pivot foot.

The PBUC has ruled that the following two types of steps are legal, and these definitions are included in all manuals of the rules that I use for interpretations:

“JAB STEP” (of the pivot foot):  In cases of a right-handed pitcher throwing to first, or a left-handed pitcher throwing to third, a pitcher can take a “jab” or “stutter” step with his pivot foot before stepping to a base with his free foot.  The motion of the “stutter” step and the resulting step of the free foot must be fluid and continuous: if the two motions are not continuous, there is a balk.  Of course, the latter step must bring the free foot into the air and replace it on the ground in a completely different spot that is closer to the pickoff base.

“JUMP STEP”: A pitcher can, without balking, jump (i.e., both his feet go airborne simultaneously) before his non-pivot foot retouches the ground in a different position; this is a jump step.  Again, the latter step must bring the free foot into the air and replace it on the ground in a completely different spot that is closer to the pickoff base.

In a pick off play at 3rd base, does the batter have to move out of the way of the catcher?  Is it considered obstruction or interference if the batter does not make an attempt to move?

The batter is not obligated to move or duck to get out of the way of the catcher on a pickoff to third.  He may not, however, step back and get in the catcher’s way or otherwise move and interfere with the catcher’s attempt to throw the runner out at third base.  As long as the batter stands still, he is not guilty of interference in this situation.

If the baseball is hit and hits the plate and rolls out is it live or dead?

The plate is entirely within fair territory.  If the ball hits the plate and rolls into the infield, it is a fair ball and is alive.

Situation: bases loaded with no outs. Batter steps out of batter's box and hits ball to short-stop. UIC yells batter-runner is out; Short-stop then throws ball to catcher standing on home plate prior to runner from third base crossing the plate.

Question:
a) Is this a dead ball, and runners return to base at time of pitch?

b) Is this a delayed-dead ball and play remains live?

c) Is the force out at Home now off and the catcher must "tag" the runner from third for an out?

d) Other?

This is an immediate dead ball and the batter is out (NFHS 7-3-2; NCAA 7-10-a;  OBR6.06a)
All runners return to the bases occupied at the time of the pitch.  Since the ball is dead, the defense may not take any action that would create an out, nor may any runners advance.

Situation: Routine infield grounder to SS, who throws to 1B, the ball hits the dirt and bounces by the first baseman. The ball hits the 1B coach and deflects off down the RF line, allowing the runner to advance to 2B, whereas, had the ball gone straight past the 1B-man w/o hitting the coach, it's questionable whether the runner could have advanced because the catcher had run down the line to back up the throw. The defensive manager argues interference on the coach. In the umpire’s eyes, the 1B coach did not intentionally deflect the ball. How should the umpire make the call, advance runner or no?

Also, in a similar situation, the ball hits the 1B coach and bounces back toward the 1B-man who is able to retrieve it and step on 1B for the out. Now the 1B coach "interference" caused his own team a negative consequence, but would the same rule apply here as in the above situation?

Your question concerns whether or not a base coach who is struck by a thrown ball has interfered with the play or not.  Part of this will depend on which set of rules are being used for the game as there is a slight difference between MLB/OBR and High School/NCAA rules.

The rules that govern this situation are as follows:

MLB/OBR - Rule 5.08
      "If a thrown ball accidentally touches a base coach, or a pitched or thrown ball touches an umpire,
       The ball is alive and in play.  However, if the coach interferes with a thrown ball, the runner is out."

      This will be umpire judgment as to whether or not the coach's actions were accidental or intentional.
      If ruled intentional, the ball is dead immediately and runner is out.  If accidental, the ball is alive, runners advance at their own risk, and all plays stand on their own merits.

High School - Rule 3-2-3
      "If a thrown ball accidentally touches a base coach in foul territory, or a pitched or thrown ball touches an umpire,         the ball is alive and in play.  However, if the coach is judged by the umpire to have interfered intentionally with the thrown ball, or interferes in fair territory, the interference penalty is invoked"

      Basically this mean that if the coach is in foul territory and does not intentionally interfere with the thrown ball, the ball is alive and runners advance at their own risk.  If the coach intentionally interferes with a thrown ball while in foul territory, the ball is immediately dead and the runner is out.  If the coach is struck by a thrown ball and is in fair territory, it is automatically interference, the ball is dead, and the runner is out.

NCAA - Rule 8-3j
      "If a thrown ball strikes a base coach on foul ground, the ball is in play. If the coach interfered intentionally with such a thrown ball, the runner is out and any other runners must return to the last base touched"

      This is the same as High School.

The bottom line is that it is umpire judgment, which is not arguable by a coach under any rules, as to whether the coach's actions were intentional or accidental.  In both scenarios you provided, if the touch was accidental, the ball is alive and all runners may advance at their own risk and are subject to being put out if they are not legally touching a base. 

In your first scenario, the batter-runner remains on second base and he acquired it legally.

In your second scenario, the runner would be out as the first baseman touched the base while holding the ball securely in his glove before the batter-runner touched the base. 

If the touch by the coach was deemed to be intentional, then the ball would have been immediately dead, and the batter-runner would be out.  All other runners would return to the bases legally occupied at the time of the interference.

No outs, runners on first and third. Ground ball to second, flips to short. Runner from first performs an illegal slide that alters the play, but the shortstop turns the double play anyway.

Man on third scores.

Call the interference and return the runner to third, or let the play stand?

Call the interference as soon as you see it.  Don’t wait until the play is over.  Interference of this type is an immediate dead ball.  It you let the runner get by with the illegal slide just because the defense was able to make the play it will only cause you problems later in the game if you have a similar play and call the interference, especially if it happens to be against the other team.

Runner on first, first baseman is holding runner on, with the pitch he moves toward the plate a couple of steps.  Ball is hit just behind first base and the first baseman starts moving backward. The runner and the first baseman collide.  What should the call be?

It depends on where and when the collision occurred.  There is a great deal of umpire judgment here, also. 

If the ball could have been fielded by the first baseman (or he was attempting to field the ball), then you probably have interference by the runner.  The fielder has the right to his initial attempt to field the ball without being impeded by the runner.  The runner can move out of the base path to avoid fielder in this case without penalty.  If it is interference, it is a dead ball and you will have two outs since it would have prevented a possible double play.

If the ball was already past the first baseman, and he could not have fielded it but was simply trying to run it down, you probably have obstruction by the fielder.  If the runner does not make it to second base safely, award the base after playing action is over.

If it was a sharp line drive and the fielder was moving quickly toward the ball and the runner didn't have time to react to the hit, it could be just baseball and you have nothing (incidental contact).  This is not the optimal call, but it could occur.  Usually when you have contact between a runner and a fielder during an attempt to field the ball, you either have obstruction or interference, but there are times when it is incidental contact.  In this case, I would probably call either interference or obstruction depending on what happened.

In the third, the coach subbed in a guy for the right fielder (who he removed to warm up for coming in to pitch the next inning - the starter can reenter and pitch).   But during that inning I got to thinking - I had put the sub in for the right fielder (in his batting slot) if the coach had intended for the sub to be put in for the current pitcher, who would be switched out the next inning, isn't that one of the questions on the test about an illegal substitute?????? - when the starter comes back in to pitch the next inning - would he have to be put in the batting slot for the starting pitcher who he is replacing (which would mean he would have batted in one slot for the first three innings and then be in another the remainder of his time in the game) or should he have kept his original slot...................did I goof this?

Assume #12 is pitching (5th batter in the lineup) and #15 is in right field (8th batter in the lineup) and both are starting players.  The coach substituted #20 for #15 so he could warm up to pitch. 

#20 is a substitute and goes in the batting slot for #15 (8th slot).  # 15 is eligible to reenter under the reentry rule.

#15 reenters the game in the next/same inning to pitch.  Since he is a reentering starter he has to return in the same spot in the batting order. (Rule 3-1-3).  He is still in the 8th batting slot and #20 has to come off the field since you can't two players in the same spot in the batting order.  If you allow # 15 to take the 5th spot in the batting order (#12's spot), you have allowed the coach to change the batting order, which is prohibited under the substitution rule.

The coach had about 20 guys for his freshman team.  He used CR for the catcher and for the pitcher - no problem. But in the fourth, he made a complete substitution change (replaced all players).  Since we now had a complete roster change, at least 18 guys in the game at one time or another, I believe he may have used a CR that had already been in the game (i.e., one of the starting players - I know a starting player can re-enter, but can he be used as a CR?  I thought a CR must be an eligible substitute, but can not be a removed starter - what about that? 

A player who has been in the game in any capacity (other than as a courtesy runner), who is an eligible substitute can be a courtesy runner.  Starting players who have been substituted for and are now on the bench may not be a courtesy runner since they have been in the game.

What happens when the batter gets hit in the hands with a pitch?

First, and foremost, the ball is immediately dead.  No runners can advance unless forced by the batter being awarded first base...if that happens.

The second thing to remember is that the hands are part of the body; they are NOT part of the bat.  This is an important issue when determining whether or not the batter is awarded a base due to being hit by the ball.  The umpire must pay close attention anytime a batter is hit by a pitch, especially in the area of the hands to determine what was happening at the time the pitch came in contact with the batter's hand(s).

What happens next depends on what the batter was doing at the time he got hit, and how he got hit.  Let's look at a few scenarios.

SCENARIO #1 - Inside pitch

The pitch is an inside pitch that would have been a ball if it hadn't hit the batter.  The umpire has to play close attention to the sound of the hit and determine if the pitch hit the batter's hand and/or the bat.
 
            If it hit the bat, and then hit the hands, it is a foul ball. 
            If it hit the hands, and then hit the bat, it is hit batter and the batter is awarded first base.
            If it hit only the hands, then the batter is awarded first base, even if it is ball four. (the hit by a pitch supersedes the ball four call)

SCENARIO #2 - Batter is swinging at the pitch

If, in the umpire's judgment, the batter is swinging at the pitch and gets hit in the hands, it is an immediate dead ball, and a strike.  If it is strike three, the batter is out even if the catcher doesn't catch the ball since no runner can advance during a dead ball situation.

SCENARIO #3 - Batter's hand or hands in the strike zone

If the batter's hand (or hands) is in the strike zone and the ball hits it/them, then it is an immediate dead ball and a strike.  This is most likely to happen if the batter is attempting to bunt the ball and has his lead hand wrapped around the front of the bat instead of just holding it on the back side of the bat, OR if the batter is crowding the plate and has his hands in the strike zone.

We had a player (shortstop) who threw his glove at a ball.  He didn’t touch it and the umpire did not enforce any kind of penalty for throwing the glove?  Isn’t this against the rules?  What is he had hit the ball with the glove?  Would that be different?

Under all rules, if a fielder throws the glove at the ball, but doesn't touch it, there is NO penalty (maybe a warning).  If they use the intentionally use the cap, mask, uniform, glove, or any other equipment that is detached from its accustomed place on their person to catch or alter the path of the ball, it is penalized as follows:

Batted ball:    3 base award (exception:  if the ball would have been a home run and it was deflected, award 4 bases)
Thrown ball:    2 base award
Pitch:            1 base award

Pro,NCAA,NFHS:
Man on third with one out. Player hits fly ball to outfield which is caught. Third base coach and base runner believe there are two outs. So runner takes off for home. When this happens the defense is led to believe that there are two outs also and they begin to leave the field. Runner from third touches home and begins to walk towards bench but is not out of the dirt circle at home. Bench coach realizes what is going on and tells runner to go back to third, which he does, but he fails to retouch home in doing so. Runner makes third with out being put out. Question, is the runner out automatically for not retracing his steps or is this an appeal play by the defense.

Appeal play under all rules

In "Pro" rules (Little League, PONY, MSLB etc), a batter is awarded first without liability to be put out on ball 4.  The HS book does not specify ”without liability"  Does that mean that on ball four, if the batter runner is outside the running lane & is hit by the throw to 1st by the catcher, he is out?  It appears that is the HS interpretation.

What do you think?  Can you find anything in the book to say yes or no?

See NFHS Rule 2.1.  An awarded base is actually "the right to advance without a play being made."  So if they throw the ball and hit him, that would be no play (and perhaps unsportsmanlike conduct on the fielder). 

On the other hand, if the batter is awarded first base on ball four and overruns the base, he is subject to being put out on a tag (this only applies in HS - Rule 8.3.7) since the ball is still live and once he touches the base, he has "advanced" and is subject to being a play being made on him.